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免費000-025考古庫Demo賞析

　
　
Exam : IBM 000-025
Title : IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.1 Implementation

1. A customer has an Exchange server on a Windows 2003 and would like to perform daily backups. It is required that the Exchange server is always available. What is the best solution to achieve this?
A. Use NTbackup for Exchange Services.
B. Use only offline backups that uses Logical Volume Snapshot Agent.
C. Use IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) for Mail for online backups daily.
D. Use Tivoli Storage Manager client without stopping the Exchange server.
Answer: C

2. Which type of device class should be defined in order to use the SnapLock feature in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server?
A. DLT device class
B. LTO device class
C. FILE device class
D. DISK device class
Answer: C

3. In a server to server communication (or in enterprise configuration), after defining a target IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) server on the Tivoli Storage Manager source server, how can an administrator test that the details entered are correct?
A. Check the Tivoli Storage Manager server activity log.
B. Ping the server from the operating system command line.
C. Use the Ping Server Tivoli Storage Manager command.
D. Open the Tivoli Storage Manager client on the Tivoli Storage Manager server, and see if the client can access the defined Tivoli Storage Manager server.
Answer: C

4. A customer has a production IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) environment and has run out of scratch tapes in a library named IBM3500. Which command will check the labeled and barcoded tapes into the library in Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. checkin libvolume IBM3500 search=bulk
B. label libvolume IBM3500 search=scratch labelsource=barcode
C. label libvolume IBM3500 search=bulk labelsource=barcode overwrite=yes
D. checkin libvolume IBM3500 search=bulk status=scratch checklabel=barcode
Answer: D

5. What best describes the default settings for the primary, copy, and active data storage pools processed during creation of the disaster recovery plan by using the prepare command?
A. Process all primary pools, all copy pools, and all active data pools.
B. Process all primary pools, all copy pools, and no active data pools.
C. Process no primary pools, all copy pools, and all active data pools.
D. Process no primary pools, no copy pools, and no active data pools.
Answer: B

6. A customer wants to upgrade the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) server environment including five Tivoli Storage Manager servers connected to a Tivoli Storage Manager Library Manager from Version 5. 5. 1 to Version 6. 1. In which order should the Tivoli Storage Manager servers be upgraded, including the Library Manager?
A. First upgrade the Library Manager, and then the Tivoli Storage Manager servers.
B. First upgrade the Tivoli Storage Manager servers, and then the Library Manager.
C. There is no order needed because of the new upgrade tool in Tivoli Storage Manager 6. 1.
D. First upgrade the Library Manager, and the other Tivoli Storage Manager servers will be upgraded automatically at the same time.
Answer: A

7. Which command is issued on IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server administrative command line to view the actual option settings?
A. query node
B. query state
C. query option
D. query config
Answer: C

8. What is a limitation in restoring Active Directory (AD) objects?
A. A restored user object is disabled.
B. The AD objects are tombstone objects.
C. The AD database is extracted from a system state restore.
D. Missing attributes are copied from the backup into the reanimated or recreated object.
Answer: A

9. What is the correct command and option that shows the current setting/value for the retention of activity log of an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager environment?
A. Command: query server, Option: ACTIVERetention 30 M
B. Command: query actlog, Option: ACTLOGretention 30 M
C. Command: query logretention, Option: LOGRetention 30 M
D. Command: query status, Option: Activity Log Retention: 30 M
Answer: D

10. Following the implementation of a LAN-free IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) solution, what can be done to test that the configuration is correct?
A. Query the backup archive client activity log.
B. Use the VALidate LAnfree command on the Tivoli Storage Manager server.
C. Use the VALidate LAnfree command from the Tivoli Storage Manager client.
D. Query the node from the Tivoli Storage Manager server and check the LAN-free option is set to Yes.
Answer: B

11. Which client command launches file level VMware Consolidated Backup, eliminates VMware scripts for managing virtual machine snapshots, and automatically performs snapshot management on each virtual machine?
A. dsmc backvm
B. dsmc backup vm
C. dsmc backup vcb
D. dsmc launch backup vm
Answer: B

12. In order to obtain an individual file level restore of a SnapMirror backup. what must be done?
A. Restore individual file from image backup.
B. Restore TOC, and then restore individual file.
C. Restore full SnapMirror Image to disk, and then restore individual file.
D. Restore IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Image to disk, and then restore individual file.
Answer: C

13. A customer requires a large file server backup in the least time possible by using a storage area network (SAN) environment. Which component should be installed on the file server in order to achieve this?
A. Tivoli Management Console
B. Integrated Solution Console
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager SAN-Free
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Network
Answer: D

14. A new storage pool is to be defined for providing off-site data protection by using an existing tape library at the off-site location and needs to provide optimized restore performance in the case of disaster. How should the storage pool be optimally configured?
A. an active-data copy pool that uses a tape device class
B. a copy pool that uses a file device class with node collocation
C. a copy pool that uses a tape device class with group collocation
D. an active-data copy pool that uses a file device class with node collocation
Answer: C

15. Which client option controls whether IBM Tivoli Storage Manager should create a differential snapshot when performing a snapdiff incremental backup?
A. diffshot
B. snapdiff
C. diffsnapshot
D. Incrsnapshot
Answer: C

16. What are the three guided Maintenance Plans in the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6. 1 Administration Center? (Choose three.)
A. Basic Maintenance Plan
B. Basic Maintenance Backup Plan
C. Basic plus Storage Pool Backup
D. Basic Maintenance plus Storage Pool Backup and Reclaim
E. Basic plus Storage Pool Backup and disaster recovery manager.
F. Basic Maintenance plus Storage Pool Backup and database Snapshot
Answer: ACE

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免費350-029考古庫Demo賞析

　
　
Exam : Cisco 350-029
Title : CCIE Service Provider Written Exam

1. Which MQC-based output queueing method is designed to support multiple traffic classes including VoIP traffic, mission-critical traffic, bulk traffic, interactive traffic and default class traffic?
A. CBWFQ
B. CB-WRED
C. LLQ
D. Custom Queueing
E. WRR Queueing
Answer: C

2. When configuring Multicast VPN (MVPN) over an MPLS core, both the Default and Data MDT is configured under which configuration mode?
A. router(config)#
B. router(config-if)#
C. router(config-vrf)#
D. router(config-router)#
E. router(config-router-af)#
Answer: C

3. Which BGP Community option is used to prevent the advertisement of the BGP prefix to any other BGP peer?
A. additive
B. none
C. no-export
D. no-advertise
E. local-as
Answer: D

4. What bit should be set in the link state PDUs in an IS-IS level-1-2 router to indicate that they are a potential exit point out of the area?
A. ATT (Attached) bit
B. IS-Type bits
C. P (Partition) bit
D. Down bit
E. PN (Pseudonode) bit
F. ABR (Area Border Router) bit
Answer: A

5. The show ip ospf database external command displays information about which OSPF LSA type?
A. LSA type 1
B. LSA type 2
C. LSA type 3
D. LSA type 5
E. LSA type 7
F. LSA type 9
Answer: D

6. With EIGRP DUAL, a feasible successor is considered loop-free if which condition is true?
A. Its AD is equal to the successor’s FD
B. Its AD is greater than the successor’s FD
C. Its AD is less than the successor’s FD
D. Its AD is equal to the metric of the successor
E. Its FD is equal to the metric of the successor
Answer: C

7. Which of the following statements is correct regarding PIM Sparse Mode operations?
A. It does not support all underlying unicast routing protocols like BGP.
B. It supports shared trees only assuming all hosts want the multicast traffic.
C. Receivers are "registered" with RP by their first-hop router.
D. Receivers are "joined" to the Shared Tree (rooted at the RP) by their local Designated Router (DR).
E. From the RP, traffic flows down a Source Tree to each receiver.
Answer: D

8. Which two statements regarding the IS-IS DIS election process are true? (Choose Two.)
A. A priority of 0 will prevent a router from becoming a DIS.
B. If the DIS becomes unavailable the backup DIS is promoted to DIS.
C. Adding a router with a higher priority than the current DIS will result in the new router becoming DIS.
D. Separate L1 and L2 election processes are held on a broadcast network.
E. L1 routers on a broadcast network only establish adjacencies with the DIS.
F. If there is a tie based on priority, the router whose attached interface has the lowest MAC address becomes the DIS.
Answer: CD

9. BGP best route selection process is based on what?
A. lowest cost
B. highest bandwidth
C. lowest hop-count
D. path attributes
E. lowest delay
F. lowest delay and highest bandwidth
Answer: D

10. What is used to provide read access to QoS configuration and statistics information on Cisco platforms that support Modular QoS CLI (MQC)?
A. Cisco NBAR Discovery
B. Cisco AutoQoS
C. Cisco Class-Based QoS MIB
D. Cisco SDM QoS Wizard
E. CDP
Answer: C

11. In Multicast VPN (MVPN) implementations, which two of the following statements are true regarding the Default MDT Group? (Choose two)
A. It is used for PIM control traffic.
B. It is optionally configured for a high bandwidth multicast source to reduce multicast traffic replication to uninterested PE routers.
C. Within the VRF configuration in the PE router, multiple Default MDT groups are configured so each VRF can support multiple multicast sources.
D. There is a reduced multicast state in the MPLS core P routers.
E. When multicast traffic exceeds a certain configured threshold, traffic from the Data MDT is switched to the Default MDT to conserve bandwidth.
Answer: AD

12. With the DSCP value of "101110", what does the "11" in bits 1 and 2 indicate?
A. AF Class
B. Drop Probability
C. CS (Class Selector Value)
D. PHB (Per-Hop Behavior)
E. IP Precedence
F. Queue Depth
Answer: B

13. Refer to the exhibit. Your customer has enabled IPv6 on routers R1 and R2 and they can no longer reach R3. Which two steps should be taken to restore reachability to R3? (Choose Two.)
A. Enable wide metrics.
B. Enable OSPFv3 to support IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously.
C. Configure static routes to all unreachable networks and redistribute to IS-IS.
D. Transition to IS-IS Multiple Topology Mode on R1 and R2.
E. Transition to IS-IS Multiple Topology Mode on R3.
F. Create an IPv6 tunnel from R2 to R3.
Answer: AD

14. Which two are characteristics of an IPv6 multicast address? (Choose two)
A. First (most significant) octet is FF in hex
B. Starts with a prefix of FE80 to FEBF in hex
C. Starts with a prefix of FEC0 to FEFF in hex
D. Second octet contains a 4-bit multicast scope field
E. Last 64 bit contains the modified MAC address of the Ethernet interface
F. Is allocated from the unicast address space
Answer: AD

15. BGP Community can be set in IOS using which configuration?
A. The neighbor {ip-address} prefix-list command within the BGP routing process
B. The neighbor {ip-address} update-source command within the BGP routing process
C. The network command within the BGP routing process
D. The set command within a route-map
E. The send-community command within a route-map
Answer: D

16. Which two statements best describe the definition and configuration of Route-distinguisher as defined in RFC 2547 biz – AKA IP-VPN (MPLS-VPN)?
A. Route-Distinguisher is an 8 byte value used in creating unique VPNv4 address.
B. Route-Distinguisher is an 8 byte BGP attribute value used in influencing BGP best path algorithm.
C. Correct configuration to define Route-Distinguisher is:
ip vrf blue
rd 1:1
D. Correct configuration to define Route-Distinguisher is:
ip vrf blue
route-distinguisher 1:1
Answer: AC

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免費1Y0-A02考古庫Demo賞析

　
　
Exam : Citrix 1Y0-A02
Title : Citrix XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.1:Administration

1. What does XenServer Enterprise Edition use to convert storage devices into a storage pool?
A. Local disk drive
B. Network disk drive
C. Logical volume manager
D. Physical volume manager
Answer: C

2. What is the maximum number of physical CPU cores supported with XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.1?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: B

3. By default, MAC addresses assigned to Virtual Machines (VM) virtual network interfaces are __________? (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. cloned from the XenServer
B. determined by the host server
C. assigned manually by administrators
D. auto-assigned by the server using random algorithm
Answer: D

4. What is the function of full emulation?
A. Simulating the complete hardware
B. Running applications as conventional local software
C. Leveraging of a hypervisor for the underlying technology
D. Offering an API that modifies the guest operating system
Answer: A

5. What is an advantage of application-based virtualization solutions?
A. Higher consolidation ratios
B. Data center high availability
C. Centralized server management
D. The ability to use diverse hardware
Answer: D

6. Which statement about the use of internal and external virtual networks is true?
A. Internal networks are used to connect to a physical NIC, whereas external networks are used to connect to a physical network.
B. Internal networks are used to connect to VLANs on the physical network, whereas external networks are used to connect to a physical network.
C. Internal networks are used to connect to a physical network, whereas external networks are used to connect to Virtual Machines on multiple servers.
D. Internal networks are used to connect to other Virtual Machines on the same server, whereas external networks are used to connect to physical NICs.
Answer: D

7. Scenario: A Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition virtual machine (VM) running on a XenServer host with four physical CPUs is consistently reporting high virtual CPU (vCPU) utilization. Currently, the VM is assigned one vCPU.
According to Citrix best practices, what is the maximum number of vCPUs that can be assigned to the Windows Server 2003 VM?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
Answer: C

8. An administrator is configuring a new XenServer implementation and wants to use the Paravirtualized (PV) drivers for Windows virtual machines.
What must the administrator install in order to use the PV drivers?
A. XenServer Tools
B. WHQL Signed Driver
C. Local Host Network Tools
D. RealTek Fast Ethernet driver
Answer: A

9. Which mechanism for changing the physical network IP configuration is supported on a XenServer 1 host?
A. Use the xe command line interface
B. Use the XenServer CD installer system
C. Use of the XenCenter Client network configuration menu
D. Use a text editor to edit the network configuration files in control domain
Answer: A

10. Scenario: An administrator wants to leverage the following XenServer Enterprise Edition features:
1. XenMotion
2. Fast cloning
3. Thin provisioning
4. Shared virtual machine storage
5. Automatic virtual machine placement
Which two storage solutions must the administrator use to allow for all of these features? (Choose two.)
A. NetApp
B. Local disk
C. Fibre-Channel
D. Software iSCSI
E. Hardware iSCSI
F. NFS-based NAS
Answer: AF

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免費70-291考古庫Demo賞析

　
　
Exam : Microsoft 70-291
Title : Implement,Managing and Maintaining a MS Win 2003 Network Infra

1. You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
On Server1, you install an application that runs as a service named App1. App1 will save files to a file share on Server2.
You perform the following actions:
·Create a domain account named App1Service.
·Set the password for App1Service.
·Create a file share on Server2.
·Grant App1Service the Allow – Change share permission.
You need to ensure that App1 can save files to the share on Server2.
What should you do?
A. From the Services snap-in, configure the Log On settings.
B. From the Services snap-in, configure the Recovery settings.
C. From Local Security Policy, disable the Network access: Shares that can be accessed anonymously setting.
D. From Local Security Policy, disable the Network access: Let Everyone permissions apply to anonymous users setting.
Answer: A

2. Your company has two offices.
All servers run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). The relevant portion of the network is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that Server1 can communicate with Web servers on the Internet.
Which default gateway should you assign to Server1?
A. 10.10.10.129
B. 10.10.11.1
C. 131.107.1.1
D. 192.168.1.1
Answer: A

3. You have an DNS server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You need to ensure that an e-mail message is sent to the administrator if the DNS server service stops.
You create a script that sends e-mail when the script is executed.
What should you do next?
A. Install the POP3 service on the DNS server.
B. Modify the DNS Server service dependencies.
C. Modify the DNS Server service Recovery options.
D. Install the Universal Description, Discovery, and Integration (UDDI) services on the DNS server.
Answer: C

4. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. You have a DHCP server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows XP Professional Service Pack 3 (SP3).
You need to administer the DHCP service on Server1 from Computer1.
What should you do first?
A. On Computer1, install adminpak.msi.
B. On Computer1, at a command prompt run the Netsh command.
C. On Server1, open the DHCP snap-in and select Export List.
D. On Server1, open the DHCP snap-in and add Computer1 to the list of servers.
Answer: A

5. Your company has two offices.
The network consists of a single Active Directory domain. You have two domain controllers named DC2 and DC3. All servers run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). The relevant portion of the network is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You verify the IP configuration of Server1 as shown in the following Command Prompt window.
You need to ensure that Server1 can locate a domain controller if a single server fails.
Which IP configuration should you change on Server1?
A. Add 10.10.0.2 as a DNS server.
B. Add 10.10.0.2 as a WINS server.
C. Add 10.11.0.20 as a WINS server.
D. Add a second network adapter that has an IP address of 10.10.0.20.
Answer: A

6. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You install and configure the DHCP service on a server as show in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that computers can receive IP configurations from the DHCP server.
What should you do?
A. Add a scope option.
B. Add a server option.
C. Authorize the DHCP server.
D. Reconcile the DHCP scope.
Answer: C

7. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You have a DHCP server that has 10 scopes.
You need to add a DNS server to all 10 scopes by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. In the DHCP snap-in, add a server option.
B. In the DHCP snap-in, add a scope option for each scope.
C. At a command prompt on the server, run the Chcp command and code page 863.
D. At a command prompt on the server, run the Netsh command and configure the popd subcontext.
Answer: A

8. You are the network administrator for your company. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2003. All client computers run Windows XP Professional.
You need to implement a new software update infrastructure. You discover that security patches, critical updates, and service packs have never been installed on any client computer on the network.
You install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) on a Windows Server 2003 computer named Server5. You synchronize and approve all of the current security patches, critical updates, and service packs.
You need to ensure that all client computers receive all Microsoft security patches, critical updates, and service packs.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Open the WSUS console. Select the option to automatically approve WSUS updates.
B. Install the Automatic Updates client on all client computers.
C. Modify the Microsoft Update settings of the Default Domain Controller organizational unit (OU) Group Policy object (GPO) to point client computers to http ://server5.
D. Modify the Microsoft Update settings of the Default Domain Policy Group Policy object (GPO) to point client computers to http: //server5.
E. Open the WSUS console. Create a target group and assign all client computers to the group.
Answer: BD

9. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You log on to Server1 by using the Administrator account for the domain. You open Event Viewer and attempt to connect to Server2 but receive the following error message.
You verify that you can connect to Server2 by using Windows Explorer and that Windows Firewall is disabled on Server2.
You open the Services snap-in on Server2 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that you can connect to Server2 remotely by using Event Viewer.
What should you do on Server2?
A. Add the Administrator account to the HelpServicesGroup.
B. Set the Startup Type for the Remote Registry service to Automatic and then start the service.
C. Set the Startup Type for the Secondary Logon service to Disabled and then stop the service.
D. Set the Startup Type for the Special Administration Console Helper service to Automatic and then start the service.
Answer: B

10. You are the network administrator for your company. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The domain contains 35 Windows Server 2003 computers; 3,000 Windows XP Professional computers; and 2,000 Windows 2000 Professional computers.
Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is installed on a server named Server1. The necessary Group Policy object (GPO) is configured.
You need to confirm whether all computers in the domain have received all approved updates from Server1.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Install and configure Urlscan.exe.
B. At the command prompt, type gpresult /scope COMPUTER.
C. Open the WSUS console. Run the Status of Computers report.
D. Open the WSUS console. Run the Synchronization Results report.
Answer: C

11. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The network contains a server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). The server has an application that runs as a service. The application uses a domain service account to access other servers in the domain.
Security policies require that users reset their passwords every 30 days. After the application runs for a month, the application fails.
You need to ensure that the application starts and can access the remote servers.
What should you do?
A. In the Services snap-in, set the service to log on as the Local System account and start the service.
B. In the Services snap-in, set the service to log on as the Local Administrator account and start the service.
C. In Active Directory Users and Computers, reset the server’s computer account. In the Services snap-in, start the service.
D. In Active Directory Users and Computers, set the Account Expires option to Never. In the Services snap-in, start the service.
Answer: D

12. Your company has a main office and plans to open a new branch office.
All servers run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You assign the network address of 192.168.1.64/26 to the new branch office.
You need to configure the network settings for a server in the branch office.
Which IP address should you use?
A. 192.168.1.10
B. 192.168.1.63
C. 192.168.1.125
D. 192.168.1.200
Answer: C

13. You have a Web server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You attempt to start the World Wide Publishing Service and receive the following error message.
You need to identify which services must be started before you can start the World Wide Web Publishing Service.
What should you do?
A. From Event Viewer, view the application log.
B. From Windows Explorer, open the %systemroot%system32driversetcservices file.
C. From the Services snap-in, view the properties of the World Wide Web Publishing Service.
D. From the command prompt, run Net config server /srvcomment:"World Wide Web Publishing Service".
Answer: C

14. You have a stand-alone server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You run the Runas command and receive the following error message: "1058: The service cannot be started, either because it is disabled or has no enabled devices associated with it."
You need to ensure that you can use Runas successfully.
What should you do?
A. Enable the Remote Registry service.
B. Enable the Secondary Logon service.
C. Join the server to an Active Directory domain.
D. From Device Manager, scan for hardware changes.
Answer: B

15. Your network contains a server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). The server has an application that runs as a service.
The application fails intermittently. After each failure, you manually restart the service.
You need to ensure that the application starts automatically after a failure.
What should you do?
A. From the Services snap-in, modify the Log On settings of the service.
B. From the Services snap-in, modify the Recovery settings of the service.
C. From the properties of the application executable, set the compatibility mode to Windows 2000.
D. From the properties of the application executable, enable the Allow non-administrators to run this program setting.
Answer: B

16. You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). Windows Firewall allows the following ports on Server1:
·53
·110
·135
You plan to install a monitoring server on the network.
You need to ensure that the monitoring server can use Server1 to relay e-mail messages.
You install the SMTP service on Server1.
What should you do next?
A. Install SNMP.
B. Install the POP3 service.
C. Create an exception for TCP port 21 in Windows Firewall.
D. Create an exception for TCP port 25 in Windows Firewall.
Answer: D

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免費1Z0-043考古庫Demo賞析

　
　
Exam : Oracle 1Z0-043
Title : Oracle Database 10g: Administration II

1. You are working in an online transaction processing (OLTP) environment. You used the FLASHBACK TABLE command to flash back the CUSTOMERS table. Before executing the FLASHBACK TABLE command, the System Change Number (SCN) was 663571. After flashing back the CUSTOMERS table, you realize that the table is not in the correct state and the resultant changes are not what you had desired. So, you need to reverse the effects of the FLASHBACK TABLE command while ensuring that:
a) No other user data in the database is affected.
b) The operation takes the minimum possible time.
Which option would you choose?
A. use the ROLLBACK command with SCN 663571
B. perform Flashback Transaction Query with SCN 663571
C. execute the FLASHBACK DATABASE statement to retrieve the CUSTOMERS table as it was at SCN 663571
D. execute another FLASHBACK TABLE statement to retrieve the CUSTOMERS table as it was at SCN 663571
Answer: D

2. Which two statements are correct regarding the Oracle Flashback Drop feature? (Choose two.)
A. Recycle bin exists for the tables only in non-SYSTEM, locally managed tablespaces.
B. You can flash back a dropped table provided row movement has been enabled on the table.
C. If you drop an index before dropping its associated table, then the recovery of the index is not supported when you flash back the dropped table.
D. When you execute the DROP TABLESPACE ?INCLUDING CONTENTS command, the objects in the tablespace are placed in the recycle bin.
E. When a dropped table is moved to the recycle bin, only the table is renamed to a system-generated name; its associated objects and constraints are not renamed.
F. If you drop a table that is protected by the recycle bin, then associated bitmap-joined indexes and materialized view logs are also stored in the recycle bin.
Answer: AC

3. You have set the value of the NLS_TIMESTAMP_TZ_FORMAT parameter in the parameter file to YYYY-MM-DD. The default format of which two data types would be affected by this setting? (Choose two.)
A. DATE
B. TIMESTAMP
C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIME ZONE
Answer: BE

4. You are using Oracle Database 10g. You performed an incomplete recovery of your database and opened the database with the RESETLOGS option.
What is the effect of opening the database with the RESETLOGS option? (Choose two.)
A. This operation resets the SCN for the database.
B. This operation creates a new incarnation of the database.
C. This operation moves all the redo log files to a different location.
D. This operation deletes the old redo log files and creates new redo log files.
E. This operation updates all current datafiles and online redo logs and all subsequent archived redo logs with a new RESETLOGS SCN and time stamp.
Answer: BE

5. You lost a temporary file that belongs to the default temporary tablespace in your database. From the options provided, which approach would you take to solve the problem?
A. flash back the database
B. import the temporary tablespace from the last export
C. restore all the data files and temporary files from the last full database backup and perform a recovery
D. not perform a recovery, but create a new temporary tablespace, make it the default temporary tablespace and then drop the old tablespace
Answer: D

6. You enabled Automatic Shared Memory Management. The initialization parameters are set as shown below:
SGA_TARGET = 10GB
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 14GB
STREAMS_POOL_SIZE = 1GB
SHARED_POOL_SIZE = 3GB
Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. A maximum of 3 GB can be allocated to shared pool.
B. The value for SGA_TARGET can be increased up to a maximum of 14 GB.
C. A total of 14 GB memory will be allocated to the automatically tuned memory components.
D. Increasing the value for SGA_TARGET will automatically increase the memory allocated for STREAMS_POOL_SIZE.
E. Increasing the value for SGA_TARGET to 12 GB will automatically increase the memory allocated to autotuned parameters.
F. Reducing the value for SGA_TARGET to 9 GB will automatically decrease the memory allocated to shared pool from 3 GB to 2 GB.
Answer: BE

7. Manually, you set the consumer group of all of the newly created users to MYDB_GRP. You want the users to be able to change their consumer groups as per the application requirement.
What was the first step that was needed in the process to achieve this objective?
A. The user must have been granted the DBA role.
B. The user must have been granted the switch privilege as a part of a role.
C. The user must have been granted the Resource Manager administrator privilege.
D. The user must have been granted the switch privilege by using the DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER_PRIVS package.
Answer: D

8. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN):
RMAN> RESTORE CONTROLFILE;
Which operation must you perform before this command is executed?
A. back up the control file to trace
B. bring database to the MOUNT state
C. open a connection to the RMAN recovery catalog, which contains the RMAN metadata for the target database
D. set the database ID (DBID), but only if the DB_NAME parameter associated with the target database is unique in the recovery catalog
Answer: C

9. View the Exhibit and examine the Flashback SCNs.
A user has inserted wrong department data in the DEPT3 table in the USERS tablespace. You use the Flashback Table functionality to rectify the erroneous inserts. While performing the recovery, you chose 2004343 as the Flashback SCN.
Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Only the row with DEPARTMENT_ID 290 would be flashed back.
B. The rows with DEPARTMENT_ID 290 and 300 would be flashed back.
C. The rows with DEPARTMENT_ID 290 and 280 would be flashed back.
D. You would have taken the USERS tablespace offline before starting the Flashback Table operation.
E. You would have enabled row movement for the DEPT3 table before starting the Flashback Table operation.
Answer: BE

10. View the Exhibit.
You have more than one table in the recycle bin having the same original name, DEPT2. You do not have any table with the name DEPT2 in your schema. You executed the following command:
PURGE TABLE dept2;
Which statement is correct in this scenario?
A. All the tables having the same original name as DEPT2 will be purged from the recycle bin.
B. The table with dropscn = 1928151 (oldest dropscn) will be purged from the recycle bin.
C. The table with dropscn = 1937123 (most recent dropscn) will be purged from the recycle bin.
D. None of the tables will be purged because there are multiple entries with the same original name in the recycle bin.
Answer: B

11. On Monday, you dropped the DEPT table from your schema and then you re-created the DEPT table in your schema. On Wednesday, you have a requirement to restore the DEPT table from the recycle bin.
Which statement is correct?
A. You can restore the DEPT table by using the Oracle Flashback Drop feature, provided you use the RENAME TO clause.
B. You can restore the DEPT table by using the Oracle Flashback Drop feature and a system-generated name will be assigned to the restored table.
C. You cannot restore the DEPT table by using the Oracle Flashback Drop feature because a table with the name DEPT already exists in your schema.
D. You cannot restore the DEPT table by using the Oracle Flashback Drop feature because the contents of the recycle bin are purged every 12 hours by default.
Answer: A

12. Immediately after adding a new disk to or removing an existing disk from an Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance, you find that the performance of the database decreases initially, until the addition or removal process is completed. Performance then gradually returns to normal levels.
Which two activities could you perform to maintain a consistent performance of the database while adding or removing disks? (Choose two.)
A. increase the number of checkpoint processes
B. define the POWER option while adding or removing the disks
C. increase the number of DBWR processes by setting up a higher value for DB_WRITER_PROCESSES
D. increase the number of slave database writer processes by setting up a higher value for DBWR_IO_SLAVES
E. increase the number of ASM Rebalance processes by setting up a higher value for ASM_POWER_LIMIT during the disk addition or removal process
Answer: BE

13. You execute the following command to enable a session in resumable mode:
SQL> ALTER SESSION ENABLE RESUMABLE TIMEOUT 60;
What is the impact of a timeout on the statements being suspended?
A. The statements remain suspended for at least 60 seconds.
B. The statements are suspended for 60 seconds and then they are executed.
C. The suspended statements error out if the problem is not rectified within 60 seconds.
D. The statements are automatically suspended 60 seconds after an error is received, and then attempt to execute normally again.
Answer: C

14. These are the details about V$FLASHBACK_DATABASE_STAT:
SQL> DESC V$FLASHBACK_DATABASE_STAT
name Null? Type
————- ——– ————–
BEGIN_TIME DATE
END_TIME DATE
FLASHBACK_DATA NUMBER
DB_DATA NUMBER
REDO_DATA NUMBER
ESTIMATED_FLASHBACK_SIZE NUMBER
Which two statements regarding the V$FLASHBACK_DATABASE_STAT view are true? (Choose two.)
A. BEGIN_TIME is the time at which Flashback logging is enabled.
B. END_TIME is the time at which the query is executed on the view.
C. REDO_DATA is the number of bytes of redo data written during the interval.
D. This view contains information about flashback data pertaining to the last 24 hours.
E. FLASHBACK_DATA is the amount of flashback data generated since the database was opened.
Answer: CD

15. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN) to perform a backup of the DETTBS tablespace:
RMAN> BACKUP TABLESPACE DETTBS;
Under which conditions would this command execute successfully? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The database is in NOMOUNT state.
B. The database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is online.
C. The database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is offline.
D. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is online.
E. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is offline.
Answer: BCE

16. You need to check the EMP_EAST partition in the EMPLOYEES table for physical corruptions. You also need to verify that the rows belong to the correct partition. Which option could you use?
A. LogMiner
B. the DBNEWID utility
C. the DBVERIFY utility
D. the ANALYZE command
E. the RMAN REPORT command
F. the RMAN CROSSCHECK command
G. the RMAN BLOCKRECOVER command
Answer: D

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免費70-660考古庫Demo賞析

　
　
Exam : Microsoft 70-660
Title : TS: Windows(r) Internals

1. You develop a device driver for a PCI device. The PCI device runs on Windows Server 2003 computers.
You test the device driver’s interrupt processing. The computer stops responding.
You need to locate the list of interrupt handling routines in the crash dump by using WinDbg.
Which command should you use?
A. !idt
B. !ipi
C. !irql
D. !isr
Answer: A

2. You are writing an I/O dispatch routine for a Windows device driver. The device driver supports buffered I/O. The dispatch routine transfers 1 KB of data to the user process.
You need to retrieve the kernel address of the 1-KB buffer from the I/O request packet (IRP).
Which field of the IRP contains the kernel address?
A. Irp->AssociatedIrp.SystemBuffer
B. Irp->Overlay.UserApcContext
C. Irp->Tail.Overlay.DriverContext[0]
D. Irp->UserBuffer
Answer: A

3. You have a device driver that has one monitoring thread named Thread1. The device driver has three worker threads named Thread2, Thread3, and Thread4. The worker threads run every 10 seconds and complete within 1 second. If any worker thread does not run at least once every 30 seconds, Thread1 calls KeBugCheckEx, and then a complete kernel crash dump is generated.
The computer generates a bug check and a complete kernel dump is generated.
You review the complete kernel dump and notice the following:
You need to identify the root cause of the bug check.
What caused the bug check to occur?
A. the priority of Thread1
B. the priority of Thread4
C. the state of Thread1
D. the state of Thread2 and Thread3
Answer: B

4. You are writing a user application that runs on Windows Server 2003.
The design specification for the application requires user authentication.
You need to ensure that users enter a local user name and password each time the application is started.
Which routine should you use?
A. CredReadDomainCredentials()
B. CredUIParseUserName()
C. CredUIPromptForCredentials()
D. LsaRegisterLogonProcess()
Answer: C

5. You plan to update a device driver on a Windows system. You download a copy of the device driver file from the Internet, but you are uncertain that the device driver is legitimate.
You need to verify the device driver’s digital signature.
Which tool should you use?
A. Certmgr.exe
B. Certmgr.msc
C. Makecert.exe
D. Signtool.exe
Answer: D

6. You are developing an application.
You need to ensure that the application can read from COM port 10 by using the CreateFile function.
Which device name should you open?
A. "COM10"
B. "%COM10%"
C. "\COM10"
D. "\\.\COM10"
Answer: D

7. You are developing a user mode application that contains two processes.
You need to allow the two processes to synchronize access to a shared data area.
Which synchronization primitive should you use?
A. Critical Section
B. ERESOURCE
C. Mutex
D. Spinlock
Answer: C

8. You develop a device driver for Windows XP that runs on uniprocessor systems only. The driver creates a system thread and a deferred procedure call (DPC). The DPC is invoked by a repeating timer.
The thread and the DPC must process entries from the same work queue.
You need to ensure that the system thread and the DPC are synchronized.
Which IRQ Level (IRQL) should you use?
A. APC_LEVEL
B. DISPATCH_LEVEL
C. LOW_LEVEL
D. PASSIVE_LEVEL
Answer: B

9. You develop a Windows device driver for a hardware device. The hardware device uses a simple direct memory access (DMA) controller. The hardware device does not perform virtual address translation.
You need to allocate a 64-KB buffer in Windows that accepts a DMA transfer of 64 KB from the hardware device.
Which routine should you use?
A. AllocateHeap(655536)
B. ExAllocatePoolWithTag(PagePool, 65536, ‘abcd’)
C. ExAllocatePoolWithTag(NonPagePool, 65536, ‘abcd’)
D. MmAllocateContiguousMemory(65536, 0xFFFFFFFF)
Answer: D

10. You are designing an application.
The application fails because of an access violation. The access violation is caused by a heap corruption.
You need to identify the cause of the heap corruption.
Which tool should you use?
A. Application Verifier
B. Process Viewer
C. Performance Monitor
D. Task Manager
Answer: A

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免費MB7-838考古庫Demo賞析

　
　
Exam : Microsoft MB7-838
Title : NAV 2009 Installation & Configuration

1. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the Developer for Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirements of your company manager, Microsoft Dynamics NAV 5.0 has been installed throughout your company. Now the company has a new plan that is to implement Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 instead of Microsoft Dynamics NAV 5.0. But at present you are connecting to external components by using the NAS component of Microsoft Dynamics NAV 5.0. In working with external components using NAS in the two-tier architecture, which drawback does the Server tier in the three-tier architecture enable you to eliminate?
A. The Server tier in the three-tier architecture enables you to eliminate the drawback of losses of data.
B. The Server tier in the three-tier architecture enables you to eliminate the drawback of necessity to use the NAS user interface
C. The Server tier in the three-tier architecture enables you to eliminate the drawback of limitation to only one process at a time.
D. The Server tier in the three-tier architecture enables you to eliminate the drawback of overload of the database management system
Answer: C

2. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. You have Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installed throughout your company. In Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 Setup, if you choose the Developer Environment option, which application component is not installed?
A. If you choose the Developer Environment option, Demo database is not installed
B. If you choose the Developer Environment option, Application Server is not installed
C. If you choose the Developer Environment option, RoleTailored Client is not installed
D. If you choose the Developer Environment option, Software Development Kit is not installed
Answer: D

3. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. You publish Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 to a user, in order to make the deployment take effect on the user’s machine, what should he do? (choose more than one)
A. He is required to log off and back on.
B. He is required to restart the computer.
C. He is required to go to Add or Remove Programs and run the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installation.
D. He is required to go to Add or Remove Programs and uninstall the previous version of Microsoft Dynamics NAV.
Answer: AC

4. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. Your company manager assigns a task to you that you have to set up Microsoft Dynamics NAV Server. During the Microsoft Dynamics NAV installation, what options can you select to do this? (choose more than one)
A. During the Microsoft Dynamics NAV installation, you should select Server to achieve this
B. During the Microsoft Dynamics NAV installation, you should select Standard to achieve this
C. During the Microsoft Dynamics NAV installation, you should select Database Components to achieve this.
D. During the Microsoft Dynamics NAV installation, you should select Developer Environment to achieve this
Answer: AD

5. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirement of your company, you have to deploy Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009. In the options below, which step is required by the published Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 deployment? (choose more than one)
A. A published Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 deployment requires restarting the computer running Windows Server
B. A published Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 deployment requires logging off and on or restarting the client computers.
C. A published Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 deployment requires copying the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installation package to client computers
D. A published Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 deployment requires running the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installation from Add or Remove Programs on the client computers
Answer: BD

6. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirement of your company, you are deploying Microsoft Dynamics 2009 with Windows Server Group Policy, where is it necessary to store the installation source? (choose more than one)
A. It’s necessary to store the installation source on a local CD/DVD.
B. It’s necessary to store the installation source on a network share
C. It’s necessary to store the installation source in a folder on a local hard disk
D. It’s necessary to store the installation source on the computer running Windows Server.
Answer: B

7. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. There are two departments in your company, one is Sales department, another is Account department. The company manager assigns a task to you that you implement Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009. When you do this, you must make sure that each division uses its own instance of the database server; users in one of the divisions are not bound to certain computers. So which deployment configuration do you suggest?
A. You suggest one GPO, One SDP,and one installation package
B. You suggest one GPO, Two SDPs, and one installation package.
C. You suggest two GPOs, Two SDPs, and two installation packages with different configuration files.
D. You suggest two GPOs, One SDP, and two installation packages with different configuration files.
Answer: D

8. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. There’re several departments in your company. The account manager is working with the Classic client but he is new to it. On the contrary, he is experienced in working with the RoleTailored client. He is not clear about what tasks can be performed in the Classic client and he asks for your advice. Which tasks do you name?
A. Viewing graphical statistics
B. Personalizing the user interface
C. Posting operational transactions
D. Development and administration tasks
Answer: CD

9. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. Your company manager assigns a task to you. You have to deploy multiple Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installation packages. You are going to make the deployment with Group Policy, so what can you define software deployment properties for? (choose more than one)
A. You can define software deployment properties for all installation packages in a GPO.
B. You can define software deployment properties for all installation packages within an SDP.
C. You can define software deployment properties for individual installation packages in a GPO
D. You can define software deployment properties for individual installation packages within an SDP.
Answer: AC

10. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirement of your company, you have to install Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 in the network. During the deployment, you use one software distribution point and publish the installation package to the group policy objects. But an employee named Jason reports that he still does not have Microsoft Dynamics NAV installed. So what is the reason for this?
A. This is because the installation package is corrupted
B. This is because the software distribution point is not accessible.
C. This is because the corresponding group policy object does not run
D. This is because the client computers do not meet the minimum requirements for the installation.
Answer: C

11. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. In the business environment of your company, Microsoft Dynamics NAV Application Server runs as a service and performs certain tasks on a daily basis. Your company plans to deploy Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009. In order to maintain the functionality executed by Microsoft Dynamics NAV Application Server, what should you do?
A. You should run the functionality manually using the RoleTailored client
B. You should run the functionality manually using the Classic client option.
C. You should connect Microsoft Dynamics NAV Application Server to SQL Server
D. You should connect Microsoft Dynamics NAV Application Server to the Server tier.
Answer: C

12. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. You have Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installed throughout your company. Now you set up a test instance of Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009, Classic client option, while importing no custom license or database files. . You test the application and then uninstall it.
After you uninstall the application, which components remain? (choose more than one)
A. After the application itself is uninstalled, License files (for example, fin.flf) remain.
B. After the application itself is uninstalled, Database files (for example, demo database) remain
C. After the application itself is uninstalled, Configuration files (for example, customsettings.config)remain.
D. After the application itself is uninstalled, Software prerequisites (for example, Microsoft .NET Framework) remain
Answer: BD

13. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirements of your company, you are installing the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009. Do you know the disadvantages of setting the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 database to auto-grow? (choose more than one)
A. The disadvantage of setting the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 database to auto-grow is that disk space may be used up.
B. The disadvantage of setting the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 database to auto-grow is that database performance decreases.
C. The disadvantage of setting the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 database to auto-grow is usage of system resources is increased.
D. The disadvantage of setting the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 database to auto-grow is that execution time of read operations is creased.
Answer: C

14. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. Your company manager assigns a task to you. You have to set up a test instance of Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 Classic client on a computer. When doing this, you cannot configure any components or providing any settings. In order to install the Classic client, what installation options can you select in Setup? (choose more than one)
A. In order to install the Classic client, you can select Install Demo in Setup
B. In order to install the Classic client, you can select Database Components in Setup.
C. In order to install the Classic client, you can select Developer Environment in Setup
D. In order to install the Classic client, you can select Classic Server Components in Setup
Answer: AC

15. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirements of your company, you have to deploy Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009. After this is done, you’re notified by the manager that the company wants to continue using the Classic client. In the three tier environment, how do you connect the Classic client to the database?
A. You specify the name of the computer where Microsoft Dynamics NAV Server tier is installed and the port number in the customsettings.config file
B. In the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 Classic client, go to File, Database, Open, and in the Server Name field, specify the name of the computer where Microsoft Dynamics NAV Server is installed.
C. In the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 Classic client with Microsoft SQL Server option, go to File, Database, Open, and in the Server Name field, specify the name of the computer where Microsoft SQL Server is installed
D. In Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 Classic client with Microsoft SQL Server option, go to File, Database, Open, and in the Server Name field, specify the name of the computer where Microsoft Dynamics NAV Server tier is installed.
Answer: C

16. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. The options below are statements about deploying Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 by assigning it to a user. Do you know which is not true? (choose more than one)
A. The application is advertised on the users desktop.
B. The user opens Add or Remove Programs to run the installation.
C. The system must be restarted for the deployment to take effect
D. RoleTailored client is started automatically after the installation
Answer: BC

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免費352-001考古庫Demo賞析

　
　
Exam : Cisco 352-001
Title : ADVDESIGN

1. How many broadcast segments are contained in this network according to the exhibit?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

2. You are the Cisco Network Designer in certways.com. Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)
A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
Answer: BD

3. The IGP next-hop reachability for a BGP route is lost but a default route is available.
Assuming that BGP connectivity is maintained, what will happen to the BGP route?
A. It will be put in a hold-down state by BGP until the next hop has been updated.
B. It will be removed from the BGP table.
C. It will be considered a valid route.
D. It will be considered invalid for traffic forwarding.
Answer: C

4. Connecting an IS-IS router to four links and redistributing 75 routes from RIP.
How many LSPs will be originated by this router?
A. one LSP: containing the router information, internal routes, and external routes
B. six LSPs: one for each link, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information
C. two LSPs: one containing router information and internal routes and one containing external routes
D. three LSPs: one containing all links, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information
Answer: A

5. According to the network in this exhibit, traffic directed towards 10.1.5.1 arrives at TIS-R4. Which path will the traffic take from here?
A. It will take TIS-R2.
B. It will not take any path. TIS-R4 will drop the traffic.
C. It will take TIS-R3.
D. It will load share between TIS-R2 and TIS-R3.
Answer: A

6. In the network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to perform EIGRP on all interfaces. All interface bandwidths are set to 1000, and the delays are configured as displayed. In the topology table at Router TIS-RC, you see only one path towards 1.1.0/24.
Why Router TIS-RC only has one path in its topology table?
A. Router TIS-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router TIS-RC due to split horizon.
B. Router TIS-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router TIS-RC because Router TIS-RC is its feasible successor.
C. Router TIS-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router TIS-RC due to split horizon.
D. Router TIS-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router TIS-RC because Router TIS-RC is its feasible successor.
Answer: C

7. What is the way that an OSPF ABR uses to prevent summary route information from being readvertised from an area into the network core (Area 0)?
A. It advertises only inter-area summaries to the backbone.
B. It uses poison reverse and split horizon.
C. It only sends locally originated summaries to the backbone.
D. It compares the area number on the summary LSA to the local area.
Answer: C

8. NetFlow provides valuable information about network users and applications, peak usage times, and traffic routing. Which function is of NetFlow?
A. monitor configuration changes
B. monitor CPU utilization
C. monitor link utilization
D. generate traps for failure conditions
Answer: C

9. Which VPN management feature would be considered to ensure that the network had the least disruption of service when making topology changes?
A. dynamic reconfiguration
B. path MTU discovery
C. auto setup
D. remote management
Answer: A

10. Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A. single run
B. multi-homed
C. stub domain EBGP
D. direct BGP peering
Answer: B

11. In the network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to run EIGRP on all links. All packets transmitted during convergence are transmitted once (there are no dropped or retransmitted packets).
What is the maximum number of queries TIS-R3 might receive for 192.168.1.0/24 if the link between TIS-R1 and TIS-R2 fails?
A. four queries, one each from TIS-R2, TIS-R4, TIS-R5, and TIS-R6
B. no queries, because there aren’t any alternate paths for 192.168.1.0/24
C. seven queries, one from TIS-R2 and two each from TIS-R4, TIS-R5, and TIS-R6
D. one query, since the remote routers TIS-R4, TIS-R5, and TIS-R6 are natural stubs in EIGRP
Answer: A

12. What information can you get from TCP flags while assessing an attack?
A. source of the attack
B. type of attack
C. target of the attack
D. priority of the attack traffic
Answer: B

13. The TIS company is deploying OSPF on a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay network. The remote sites needn??t to communicate with each other and there are a relatively small number of sites (scaling is not a concern).
How to configure OSPF for this topology in order to minimize the additional routing information injected into the network and keep the configuration size and complexity to a minimum?
A. Configure the link as OSPF nonbroadcast and manually configure each of the remote sites as a neighbor.
B. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure the hub router to always be the designated router.
C. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure a mesh group towards the remote routers.
D. Configure the link at the hub router as OSPF point-to-multipoint and at the remote routers as OSPF point-to-point.
Answer: B

14. What is high availability?
A. redundant infrastructure
B. clustering of computer systems
C. reduced MTBF
D. continuous operation of computing systems
Answer: D

15. Which two steps can be taken by the sinkhole technique? (Choose two.)
A. reverse the direction of an attack
B. redirect an attack away from its target
C. monitor attack noise, scans, and other activity
D. delay an attack from reaching its target
Answer: BC

16. All routers in this network are running EIGRP according to the exhibit.
Which step is the most important to make sure that this network core will converge quickly should a link failure occur?
A. make certain the maximum number of paths on both of the routers is two
B. make certain EIGRP is not running across non-transit links
C. add another link between the two routers with no servers and set the metric on this new link equal to the other four links
D. make certain EIGRP is running across all links
Answer: B

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免費EX0-100考古庫Demo賞析

　
　
Exam : EXIN EX0-100
Title : ITIL Foundation Certificate In It Service Management(Exin)

1. Which Change Management activity indicates the priority and category of an accepted Request for Change (RFC)?
A. classification
B. coordination
C. registration
D. scheduling
Answer: A

2. Which information does Financial Management for IT Services extract from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. which equipment is being used by whom
B. where the equipment has been set up
C. which software version is being used
D. which equipment is causing incidents
Answer: A

3. What does the term "Serviceability" refer to?
A. contracts between external suppliers and the customer
B. contracts between external suppliers of services and the IT department
C. contracts between internal IT departments
D. contracts between IT management and the customer
Answer: B

4. How does Problem Management differ from Incident Management?
A. Incident Management focuses on registration and Problem Management does not.
B. Problem Management focuses on restoration of service and Incident Management focuses on finding the cause.
C. Incident Management focuses on restoration of service and Problem Management focuses on finding the cause.
D. Problem Management generates reports and Incident Management does not.
Answer: C

5. Managing risk is an essential part of which processes?
A. Problem Management and Capacity Management
B. Availability Management and Service Level Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management and Financial Management for IT Services
D. IT Service Continuity Management and Availability Management
Answer: D

6. What is produced when Problem Management identifies the cause of a Problem and a workaround?
A. a Request for Change
B. a resolved Problem
C. a Known Error
D. one or more resolved incidents
Answer: C

7. Certain data is needed to describe an ITIL?process. This includes the objectives and the output. What else is required?
A. activities
B. authorisations
C. environment
D. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
Answer: A

8. Which of the following tasks is assigned to each process manager?
A. ensuring the smooth running of the process
B. setting up Service Level Agreements with the users
C. channeling data to Problem Management
D. following up on Incidents
Answer: A

9. Which of the following processes provides Problem Management with reports about the IT infrastructure?
A. Financial Management for IT Services
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: C

10. Which item is required in the Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a Change?
A. whether the Change has achieved the intended goal
B. whether the CI registration in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) is up-to-date
C. whether the Management of the IT department is satisfied with the implementation of the Change
D. to which Configuration Items (CIs) the Change relates
Answer: A

11. Which of the following is Availability Management responsible for?
A. ensuring the reliability of components will carry out a required function under certain conditions over a certain period
B. managing the negotiations with the customer with regard to availability
C. Demand Management
D. delivering information on Service Levels to clients to determine the availability percentage
Answer: A

12. When an IT service provider adopts and adapts ITIL?best practices, which of the following is the greatest benefit?
A. Work is carried out using a project-oriented approach.
B. There is a central Service Desk.
C. The organization is more customer-oriented.
D. Work is carried out using a process-oriented approach.
Answer: D

13. Which of the following is not regarded as an incident?
A. a complaint about the service of the Service Desk
B. a standard request for change
C. a report of a breakdown
D. a question about how an application works
Answer: B

14. Which aspect is important when registering security incidents?
A. the person who reported the incident
B. the applicable disciplinary measures
C. qualified Service Desk employees
D. recognizing the event as a security incident
Answer: D

15. Which process includes developing a recovery plan?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Problem Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

16. Where can you find an overview of all IT services?
A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
B. Service Catalog
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. Service Window
Answer: B

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免費PK1-003考古庫Demo賞析

　
　
Exam : CompTIA PK1-003
Title : CompTIA Project+ Beta Exam

1. A project manager is in a projectized organization managing a particular project. A department manager has repeatedly requested a change to the scope of the project which was previously denied. The project is currently behind schedule. Which of the following would be the BEST way to deal with the managers repeated request?
A. Request the manager fill out a formal request for the change and file it with the project management office.
B. Have a team member meet with the manager so the project can stay on schedule.
C. Ask the project sponsor to respond to the department manager.
D. Implement the change as requested by the manager and inform the project sponsor.
Answer: C

2. A project manager is presented with a change request for an ongoing project. Which of the following would be the FIRST action?
A. Update the project plan to accommodate the changes.
B. Perform an impact analysis.
C. Organize a stakeholder meeting to review the changes.
D. Change the project scope to reflect the change request.
Answer: B

3. Which of the following is the purpose of a Pareto diagram?
A. To show the sequence in which work will be performed
B. To create the process that will complete the project
C. To determine the critical path
D. To direct team efforts to the areas that will have the most impact
Answer: D

4. A project manager receives a request for a minor change to one of the deliverables. Which of the following documents would MOST likely be impacted?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project charter
C. Communication plan
D. Quality plan
Answer: A

5. Which of the following quality control tools illustrates the various factors that may be linked to potential problems or effects?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Histogram
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: A

6. Who has the MOST influence over project decisions?
A. Project team members
B. End users
C. Key stakeholders
D. Project manager
Answer: C

7. Design, launch, review and test are examples of which of the following work breakdown structure (WBS) schemes?
A. Functions
B. Organizational units
C. Product components
D. Geographical areas
Answer: A

8. Which of the following describes a qualitative risk analysis tool that assigns ratings to project risk factors based upon the likelihood of occurrence and the affect it will have on the project?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Risk register
C. Probability and impact matrix
D. Decision tree analysis
Answer: C

9. Which of the following tools are used for quality planning? (Select TWO).
A. Cost / Benefit analysis
B. Network diagram
C. Benchmarking
D. Critical Path Method (CPM)
E. Parametric estimating
Answer: AC

10. A purpose of formal project closure is to:
A. assess blame for the failure of the project.
B. provide lessons learned for future projects.
C. start a new project.
D. outline the responsibilities of each team member.
Answer: B

11. Which of the following tools is the BEST to measure data organized in time sequence?
A. Run chart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Answer: A

12. Which of the following would MOST likely be included in a project scope document?
A. WBS
B. Quality metrics
C. Risk responses
D. KPIs
Answer: D

13. Which of the following would be a direct output of the initiating process group? (Select TWO).
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. Preliminary scope statement
Answer: AE

14. Which of the following BEST describes the critical path of a project?
A. A modified version of a project schedule taking into account limited resources and external dependencies.
B. The length of time between the two most critical milestones of a project.
C. The shortest possible path through a project, represented by the sum of the duration of all scheduled activities, with zero float.
D. A PDM network diagram illustrating, in detail, all mandatory, discretionary and external dependencies for a given project.
Answer: C

15. The communication plan for a project is a subset of which of the following documents?
A. Project charter
B. Risk management plan
C. Project schedule
D. Project plan
Answer: D

16. Which of the following activities would happen LAST in procurement management?
A. Request seller responses
B. Perform contract administration
C. Perform vendor selection
D. Perform a make or buy analysis
Answer: B

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